cassava7
Senior Member (Voting Rights)
We have previously discussed interventions that manipulate how patients report symptoms as a separate form of bias, rather than as part of the placebo effect.
Critics of the placebo effect have pointed out that according to the available evidence, "placebo effects are weak: regression to the mean is the main reason ineffective treatments appear to work". This seems to be based on the Cochrane review of placebo interventions by Hróbjartsson and Gøtzsche (2010), which concludes (bolding and underlining mine):
However, these reviews conducted within-arm comparisons, not between-arm like the Cochrane review, which subjects them to confounding by regression to the mean. In their rebuttal of Colloca and Barsky, Dahly and Zad's conclusion falls in line with that of the Cochrane review (bolding mine):
Overall, this begs the question: is there a standalone psychosomatic component to the placebo and nocebo effects, or can they be wholly explained by other sources of bias -- first and foremost regression to the mean, and response bias on subjective outcomes --?
Critics of the placebo effect have pointed out that according to the available evidence, "placebo effects are weak: regression to the mean is the main reason ineffective treatments appear to work". This seems to be based on the Cochrane review of placebo interventions by Hróbjartsson and Gøtzsche (2010), which concludes (bolding and underlining mine):
We did not find that placebo interventions have important clinical effects in general. However, in certain settings placebo interventions can influence patient‐reported outcomes, especially pain and nausea, though it is difficult to distinguish patient‐reported effects of placebo from biased reporting. The effect on pain varied, even among trials with low risk of bias, from negligible to clinically important. Variations in the effect of placebo were partly explained by variations in how trials were conducted and how patients were informed.
Recently, two reviews of the placebo effect were published in NEJM (Colloca and Barsky, 2020) and JAMA (Jones et al, 2021, in treatment-resistant depression, S4ME thread). These found, respectively, that the placebo (and nocebo) effect were "powerful, pervasive, and common in clinical practice" and "large and consistent across treatment modalities".
However, these reviews conducted within-arm comparisons, not between-arm like the Cochrane review, which subjects them to confounding by regression to the mean. In their rebuttal of Colloca and Barsky, Dahly and Zad's conclusion falls in line with that of the Cochrane review (bolding mine):
Instead, the evidence presented seems to support the plausibility of therapeutically useful placebo effects based on indirect evidence (an argument placebo researchers have been making for decades now), and some limited empirical evidence of them (systematic effects beyond regression to the mean and measurement error) in a very limited number of areas.
(...) to suggest that placebos have potent, widely-applicable therapeutic effects is clearly a substantial overreach, and in our opinion the suggestion that we should explore subgroups of patients who are most likely to benefit from such therapeutic effects will result in much more noise than signal.
Jones and Maher's rebuttal of Jones et al highlight the same problems.(...) to suggest that placebos have potent, widely-applicable therapeutic effects is clearly a substantial overreach, and in our opinion the suggestion that we should explore subgroups of patients who are most likely to benefit from such therapeutic effects will result in much more noise than signal.
Overall, this begs the question: is there a standalone psychosomatic component to the placebo and nocebo effects, or can they be wholly explained by other sources of bias -- first and foremost regression to the mean, and response bias on subjective outcomes --?
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