I hope that I have placed this question in an appropriate space and apologise in advance if, as seems likely, this has already been addressed and I have simply been unable to locate the relevant thread.
It seems that a recurrent objection expressed on S4ME to a great deal of ME research concerns "inflammation", with the S4ME consensus being that there has never been any documented "inflammation" associated with ME, while researcher after researcher and clinic after clinic bluntly assert that they have documented "inflammation" and that this "inflammation" is key to understanding ME. For both sides, the fact that their opposition is completely stupid, mad, brain dead, or malicious seems to be taken as self-evident.
All of this leaves me feeling a right idiot for not even being able to understand the point of disagreement. If there is anyone willing to take the time to explain at least the basics of the conflict to someone as dumb as I am, I would be exceedingly grateful. Is it a matter of how "inflammation" is defined? If so, why isn't this lack of an agreed upon definition for such a frequently used term a larger issue throughout medicine (or perhaps it is and I am simply unaware)? Is it a matter of interpreting specific data? If so, how comes it that the issue is spread so broadly across what appear to me to be profoundly different forms of evaluation?
Thanks in advance, and apologies for what must seem to many an unnecessary question.
It seems that a recurrent objection expressed on S4ME to a great deal of ME research concerns "inflammation", with the S4ME consensus being that there has never been any documented "inflammation" associated with ME, while researcher after researcher and clinic after clinic bluntly assert that they have documented "inflammation" and that this "inflammation" is key to understanding ME. For both sides, the fact that their opposition is completely stupid, mad, brain dead, or malicious seems to be taken as self-evident.
All of this leaves me feeling a right idiot for not even being able to understand the point of disagreement. If there is anyone willing to take the time to explain at least the basics of the conflict to someone as dumb as I am, I would be exceedingly grateful. Is it a matter of how "inflammation" is defined? If so, why isn't this lack of an agreed upon definition for such a frequently used term a larger issue throughout medicine (or perhaps it is and I am simply unaware)? Is it a matter of interpreting specific data? If so, how comes it that the issue is spread so broadly across what appear to me to be profoundly different forms of evaluation?
Thanks in advance, and apologies for what must seem to many an unnecessary question.