From Royal Free to Gulf War Illness: Infection, Environment, or Both?

QuietHarbor17

Established Member
I’ve been wondering about a few things that may or may not connect, especially if ME isn’t one completely uniform illness.

One is the autopsy findings.

If some people diagnosed with ME have shown abnormalities in the brain, spinal cord or dorsal root ganglia after death, what does that actually tell us?

Does it suggest that at least some people with ME have suffered permanent injury to the central or peripheral nervous system?

Or could some of those findings reflect inflammation or other pathology that doesn’t necessarily mean irreversible damage?

I suppose what I’m really asking is whether neuropathology at autopsy tells us that ME itself is a permanently damaging neurological disease, or whether that conclusion goes beyond what the evidence can actually show.

That also leads into the old ME vs CFS question.

Erik Johnson has long argued that the illness described as ME around outbreaks such as the Royal Free was not necessarily the same thing as the broader illness that later became labelled CFS after outbreaks such as Lake Tahoe.
I know that distinction is controversial, and I’m not saying his interpretation is proven.

Also it seems that Mold avoidance was one of the game changers for Giles Meehan who was a former UK ME advocate .He posted a video years ago on YouTube called Mould and ME.Basically he suggests that moving to a cleaner air part of the UK helped his ME symptoms and he was able to go back to work.So if he had ME and improved through Mold avoidance /Location effect than what does this say about ME?

I understand there seems to be many subgroups and at the same time I heard people say ME is one thing and CFS is another .Is it really that simple ?

But I do wonder how we can know that people included under different historical definitions were all suffering from the same underlying disease.

If older ME descriptions selected a more specifically neurological illness, while some later CFS criteria could include a much broader group, could we be mixing together several subtypes or even several different illnesses?

The Royal Free outbreak is particularly interesting to me because I’m in the US and most of the discussion I’ve seen here tends to centre on the later CFS history.

The usual interpretation of Royal Free seems to be an infectious outbreak, even though, as far as I understand, no specific infectious agent was ever conclusively identified.

That makes me wonder about the environmental side of these old outbreaks.
Were chemicals, occupational exposures, building conditions, pesticides, air quality or other environmental factors ever investigated in much depth?

And not just at Royal Free, but across the other hospital and community clusters that occurred internationally.

I’m not suggesting that any of those outbreaks have been shown to be chemical poisoning.
I’m more curious whether the historical debate became too binary: either there was an infectious agent, or the illness was psychogenic.

Could there have been an infection plus environmental exposure, or an infection acting on people who already had some particular environmental or immune vulnerability?

That interests me partly because Nancy Klimas has spent years studying both ME/CFS and Gulf War Illness. GWI obviously has a much stronger history of concern about environmental and chemical exposures, yet there seem to be areas of overlap in immune, autonomic and neurological research.

I’ve also had a strong location effect myself.
When I was younger I could sometimes go from more moderate/severe to something closer to mild/moderate simply by staying somewhere with very clean outdoor air.

I’d wake up with far less of the “poisoned” feeling and malaise.

The odd part was that most of the benefit would disappear again after returning to my usual environment.

I’ve wondered whether changing the external environment could somehow change the internal environment too ..immune signalling, microbiome, autonomic state, exposure load, or something else entirely.

I don’t know the mechanism, and I’m not claiming that mold or any single exposure explains ME.
One UK case I’ve always found interesting is Giles Meehan, who I understand became well enough to return to work after taking Erik Johnson’s mold avoidance ideas seriously and eventually moving to another part of the UK where he felt the outdoor environment suited him better.

Again, one person’s experience doesn’t establish a mechanism, but it raises an interesting question if some patients show large, repeatable location effects.

I’d also be interested in hearing specifically from people now in their 40s, 50s or older who already had ME in their 20s or 30s.
Did the illness change as you aged?

In my 30s I seemed to have more margin for error. Now in my 40s, recovery feels slower, gut motility is slower, and I don’t seem to bounce back from physical or environmental stressors as easily.

I can’t tell whether that is ageing, longer duration of illness, accumulated effects of being ill, or some combination.

So I suppose I have several related questions:
Do the autopsy findings in ME actually tell us anything about permanence or irreversible neurological injury?

How confident can we be that historical ME and later CFS cohorts were describing the same biological illness?

And has anyone seriously revisited the old outbreaks looking at infection and environment together rather than treating them as competing explanations?

I’d be especially interested in historical papers or pathology work that might help separate what is actually known from what has just become part of the ME/CFS narrative over time

Thank you
 
Thank you for this post. I would like to add a concept in your thinking which has to do with metabolism. It is metabolic function that is responsible for making sure that harmful substances are removed from the body ASAP. I believe that some kind of metabolic dysfunction is a key causal factor for many patients.

We may have evidence that ME/CFS is started from pesticides and fluoroquinolones. It is a question also what happened in The Netherlands in the El Al flight 1862 (see section health issues)

Unfortunately, looking primarily at the immune system for answers is a bias that needs to change
 
How confident can we be that historical ME and later CFS cohorts were describing the same biological illness?

We know that they are not. I have been writing about this for some time and ut in in to my Qeios piece on 'The Concept of ME/CFS'.

ME historically described an acute illness with focal neurological signs such as specific limb weakness that appeared to be part of a virus outbreak at RFH, with perhaps the same thing being responsible for the acute illness seen in Iceland etc. It was termed neurological because of the focal neurological signs of this acute illness. These signs have nothing to do with the later development of a chronic disabling illness in some of these individuals as far as we know and nothing to do with the finding of some mononuclear cell clusters in dorsal root ganglia in some autopsies.

The focal neurological signs were never very well documented and McEvedy and Beard may have been right at least to point out that they may have been misinterpreted as sign of encephalitis. No new causal virus was ever identified. This acute neurological "ME" only ever accounted for a few hundred cases (at the most). ME/CFS is a long term illness affecting millions. Whatever the acute illness at RFH was, it seems to have been, like EBV or borrelia, something that could lead on to ME/CFS, but it was never the same thing.

The CFS term, was, in contrast, pretty much what we now call ME/CFS, from the start. However, right from the 1980s it carried implications about a psychological basis.

So, in short, ME never was the same sort of illness as CFS.
 
Do the autopsy findings in ME actually tell us anything about permanence or irreversible neurological injury?

All we have is a few cases with lymphocytes in DRGs. These could be (a) vitally important or (b) non-specific artefacts or (c) a feature of a rare but severe condition that gets lumped under ME/CFS.

In general there is no evidence for inflammation in ME/CFS but technically these lymphoid clusters could just about be considered a form of chronic inflammation. The reports we have do not mention neuronal loss as far as I am aware, so the clusters ought to be reversible if we knew how to remove the cells. But things are likely to be more complex and there may have been irreversible changes with scarring of neural tissue involved. (As noted, this question has nothing to do with the 'neurological' aspects of cases at the Royal Free, which suggested cord or brain pathology, not DRG.)
 
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Was it T cells specifically? And do the anti lymphocyte drugs we currently have (e.g. Campath for T cells) penetrate into/work on DRG?

My memory is that there were clusters of lymphocytes. B cells do not do that in non-lymphoid tissue, except where there is follicular architecture which there was not. Campath might hit these, yes. DRG might be technically behind the blood brain barrier but they are surrounded by tissues that are not and I suspect would be accessible by a monoclonal.
 
I tend to think unlikely.If the clusters of lymphocytes are relevant to symptoms i suspect that getting rid of them would improve symptoms. We were not told of any neural structural damage as such.
I found an old discussion on Phoenix Rising about these autopsy findings, which made me come back to this point.
There have been a few autopsies of people with ME/CFS, and in some of them lymphocytes were indeed found infiltrating the sensory ganglia, along with findings compatible with the loss of some neurons.

Dr Edwards, does the presence of Nageotte nodules in this context really constitute evidence of irreversible neuronal loss, or can this type of finding occur without significant and permanent neuronal destruction ?

And given the very small number of cases, do you think it is reasonable to consider that this could represent a particular subgroup of ME/CFS ? If these lesions do reflect more substantial neuronal damage, could they also be associated with more severe or more persistent forms of the illness in some patients ?
 
Dr Edwards, does the presence of Nageotte nodules in this context really constitute evidence of irreversible neuronal loss, or can this type of finding occur without significant and permanent neuronal destruction ?

I really don't know about that. I think Nageotte nodules can be a 'normal' incidental finding though.

If these lesions do reflect more substantial neuronal damage, could they also be associated with more severe or more persistent forms of the illness in some patients ?

I think it is quite possible that these findings only reflect very severe cases, but they may reflect immune cell interactions occurring more widely in people with ME/CFS at sites that we cannot at present analyse usefully.
 
NEUROIMAGING VS AUTOPSIES?

MRI is not part of the routine diagnosis of exclusion for ME/CFS. Public information about autopsies of those with severe ME/CFS who died is very scarce. But based on the very limited information available, neuropathology sometimes shows up.

That makes me wonder why this pathology is not being found in MRI research? Are those who die somehow different than those who are researched? What strength or resolution MRI is required to reliably detect this kind of neuropathology or conclusively rule out subtle "organic" damage?

How many people who died and demonstrated neuropathology on autopsy had a normal MRI? If they did, does this not represent a massive blind spot in assuming normal MRI means no neuropathology?

But the autopsies are not consistent either. Different areas of the brain and spinal cord are affected. But I think a comparison can be drawn here with skin cancer in the following sense:

There are many types of skin cancer, and it does not matter where the cancer forms on the skin, it still counts as skin cancer. So I wonder if something similar could be said about the various neuropathological findings in autopsies. Perhaps the comparison could be taken further to the conflicting results of local hypoperfusion from functional MRI studies?

I have always found the "organic" vs "functional" dualism a little, well, dualistic. Patients are routinely accused of having dualistic views about the mind and body, yet the dualism of medicine is still quite apparent when it typically assumes symptoms must be "functional" if no "structural" abnormalities are found on routine testing. And if functional, must therefore be primarily caused and/or primarily perpetuated by modifiable cognitive and behavioural factors.

Could there be some kind of grey area inbetween which fails to fall into these classical categories, and if so, how could this be more formally conceptualised and researched? Could this explain why ME/CFS is generally difficult to detect despite being profoundly debilitating and enduring?
 
That makes me wonder why this pathology is not being found in MRI research? Are those who die somehow different than those who are researched? What strength or resolution MRI is required to reliably detect this kind of neuropathology or conclusively rule out subtle "organic" damage?
If it’s just about neurons acting differently, it might be outside our reach virtually forever. In 2024 we managed to map the entire brain of a fruit fly. It has 140 000 neurons. We have >80 billions. Each neuron can have tens of thousands of synapses.

But getting that kind of detail might not be needed. Genetics will point to cell types and things like the response to busiprone might allow us to extrapolate.
How many people who died and demonstrated neuropathology on autopsy had a normal MRI? If they did, does this not represent a massive blind spot in assuming normal MRI means no neuropathology?
I don’t think MRIs are taken to mean more than a lack of detectable findings. Migraine can have normal MRIs, but I don’t think anyone believe migraine isn’t neurological.
 
Patients are routinely accused of having dualistic views about the mind and body, yet the dualism of medicine is still quite apparent when it typically assumes symptoms must be "functional" if no "structural" abnormalities are found on routine testing. And if functional, must therefore be primarily caused and/or primarily perpetuated by modifiable cognitive and behavioural factors.

That's a particular view of the term 'functional', which I agree is fairly prevalent among medical professionals.

But I'd imagine signalling errors would also qualify as functional? Perhaps that term wouldn't be first choice, but in the sense of structural vs non-structural they'd fall into the latter camp.
 
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