No, they didn't? They pointed out that we are not looking at the prevalence of fibromyalgia in all OSA patients here, the sample is more skewed towards OSA syndrome (OSAS - OSA + daytime sleepiness) patients (as they are more likely to be referred for sleep evaluations because they are sleepy), which I agreed with.
You said:
obviously people who are referred for sleep evaluations and ultimately diagnosed with OSA are more likely to be sleepy/fatigued (many people with OSA are asymptomatic but are unlikely to be referred for sleep evaluations unless their snoring is really bothersome to partners/etc.),
What I tried to convey is that people that sleep poorly have more pain, and because FM has become synonymous with «this patient has pain» for many doctors, any person with sleep issues is more likely to get an FM diagnosis.
If pwOSA that are given a diagnosis disproportionally are the minority of the pwOSA that also have sleep issues (which makes sense because why would an asymptomatic person go through these checks?), then that will by itself make OSA seem correlated with FM due to sleep issues being correlated with more pain.
Without your correction below that sleepiness != poor sleep, the above argument makes sense.
I pointed out that most OSAS patients are not sleepy because of traditional metrics of "poor sleep," (and provided evidence that sleepy and non-sleepy OSA patients do not differ on these metrics); thus "poor sleep" does not explain the elevated rates of fibromyalgia in OSA/S patients.
With this argument, assuming the data in the table you linked is correct, representative, and does not show sleep issues (is there norm data out there?), my explanation doesn’t hold up as well.
The reason OSAS patients are sleepy/fatigued is very likely to share a common underlying cause with the reason many of them have fibromyalgia.
This is the crux, isn’t it?
The reason I’m sceptical off the bat, is that we see hundreds of publication about ME/CFS, FM, LC, etc. every year by researcher and doctors that show some kind of correlation between two kinds of variables, and then try to make up an elaborate story about how they have to be connected somehow. Very few of them hold up under scrutiny.
I’m not saying you are wrong for that reason. But the default assumption has to be that there is no connection, and then it’s up to someone to disprove it and demonstrate that there actually is something there. Otherwise we’d spend all our time collectively chasing red herrings. That’s not to say that we don’t need people to have creative ideas and explore possible connections (we won’t get anywhere without it) - just that getting others to follow your particular path over something else will take some convincing.
Asking «how else would you explain this correlation» probably isn’t enough to make people think it’s worthwhile to invest time and energy into.