Don't think we have discussed this plot yet:

Basically, the idea is that if the difference between groups is driven by selection bias, stratification effects, ancestry differences etc., then there will be lower p-values across the board. It would look like a systematic shift where many SNPs are affected, too many to be explained by genetic differences underlying a disease.
A true effect of the genetic susceptibility for a disease should result in a smaller number of SNPs that are significantly different.
One way to test and differentiate between the two is to plot the p-values found against a uniform distribution of p-values (because that's what we would expect if there was no effect). If we're testing the genetics of the disease, then we would expect the observed p-values to differ from the expected, only at the very end, like a tail that bends upward. If there were a systematic difference, then the observed and expected would not match for many other p-values, and so the straight line would break and bend earlier. It would ot match a straight line through the origin with a slope of 1.
I have little experience with interpreting these plots, but it looks like there was some systematic difference for the low allele frequencies and no or much less for the common frequencies, which is where most of the hits were found. Because the observed p-values go all the way up to 10^-11, I assume this shows the full data before filtering based on quality control took place?
There is also an inflation measure, lambda = 1.066, which is the ratio of the observed to expected median p-value. Here, the same reasoning applies: these should be similar (so lambda should be close to 1). If not, it would suggest population differences other than having ME/CFS or not. A lambda of 1.066 looks fine.