Wyva
Senior Member (Voting Rights)
Do we know why they have this one-year requirement? I mean they have a control group that only gets placebo, so I don't think they are planning to attribute the effect of the drug to the potential early natural recoveries. Do they believe the condition is a lot less likely to be reversible after the first year or why?
Edit: my speculation: maybe of the patients they tried it on before the trial, only the ones who were ill for less than a year recovered? Which might point to the spontaneous early recovery known in ME/CFS. But maybe their interpretation is that the drug works better in the early stage. Just my speculation though.
Edit: my speculation: maybe of the patients they tried it on before the trial, only the ones who were ill for less than a year recovered? Which might point to the spontaneous early recovery known in ME/CFS. But maybe their interpretation is that the drug works better in the early stage. Just my speculation though.
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